First of all, i thank you very much for actually engaging in the discussion, usually when i ask these kind of questions all i get is much repeated empty phrases but no actual answers from both sides :/

For example, Genesis 2 quite clearly is also chronologically, with frequend uses of the word "then" which clearly implies a chronological order

and exodus 20:1 goes quite cleary that "And God spoke all these words", not something along of "god let these words be known", but quite insistent its god directly giving that speech.
especially considering that EX 20:2 then goes "I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery." not, "i speak for the lord", but "i am the lord"

And while that again can be a valid reading, the text is written in a way that you could just aswell read it as "don't make images of anything in heaven or eart. especially don't worship them"

As to aarons death, my next question would be why they would jounry 7 times from Moseroth to mount Hor in numbers 33:31-38?
altough i have to admit, it does make sense, but at the same time, why say "at the edge of the land of edom" if they are still in mosera, wouldn't the correct phrasing be "at the edge to the land of of edom"

good point, multiple shipments are a distinct possibillity i forgot to account for, for which the blame lays squarly on me, as i really should have noticed that possibillity.

baasha, while it does make sense in *that* reading, the english version atleast can just as well be read as "the year since Asa took reign",
putting the answer at a possible miss-translation as we *suspect* they mean different time-frames, but can't say for sure

and regarding josephs father, if we are at the point where we explain things by "they used words in different senses", then that reveals an even more important contradiction:
the contradiction that different translations say *quite* the different things. for example, ugerman bibles used to say "knabenschänder", which translated from german means "boy molester" instead of homosexuals in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and leviticus 20:13 (a german bible from 15 https://www.bibel-online.net/buch/luther_1912/3_mose/20/#1)
it took an american company paying for a new translation of the bible before it startet to talk about laying with a man in those parts.
As far as i know the swedisch and norwegian translations go the same, but as i have not learned those languages in school, i can't confirm that for myself beyond trusing people that speak the language.
my problem here is that according to one of the websites you linked ( http://www.christcreated.com/doctrine/sin/homosexuality/) the bible is quite clear on that,
when in reality the greek words from which they translated "arsenokoitai" can also be read to mean "prositute" or indeed child molester, leading to 2 very contradictory readings based upon translation issues

And granted, this is less of a contradiction and more of a honest question probably born of misunderstanding, but if the rules and laws of the old covenant won't get you saved nowadays, then why do people still follow (or, rather from my admitdly biased viewpoint, abuse) them today?

Alright, please explain how Jacob has seen god in Genesis 32:30 when John 1:18 is quite clear on the fact that nobody has seen god.
Or how in genesis 1, where god made man in his own image after creating trees, but then in genesis 2 where he changes his mind and creates man first and plants after that.
and yes, i know genesis 2 implies that he only created "every tree that is pleasant to the sight, and good for food", but genesis 1 quite clearly also mentions food-bearing.
Also, explain how god decided to first create all kinds of animals like fish, fowl, cattle etc (genesis 1:20-25 for creatures, 1:26-27 for man)
Before man and then again decided, nha, Man first, animals after (genesis 2:7 for creation of man, and genesis 2:19 for "every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air")

Ohh, or that time in exodues 20:4 where he says to *not* make any graven images, only to later decide in exodues 25:18 that they *should* make some graven images.

Or in Exodus 20:1 to exodues 20:17 where god personally lays down his rules, but later in Galatians 3:19 its all just ordained by angels in the hands of a mediator.

Also, where exactly did Aaron the priest die? was it mount Hor (numbers 33:38) or was it in Mosera(Deuteronomy 10:6)
and while we are on this point, how many talents of gold were brought to solomon? personally i prefer the 420 from 1 Kings 9:28, but 2 Chronicles 8:18 says 450, and i really do think solomon deserves those extra 30 talents.
And good 'ol Baasha? did he die in the 26th year of Asa (1 Kings 16:6-8) or did he die in the 36th? (2 Chronicles 16:1).

But i have to give props to the bible at this point, implying Jesus himself had homosexual grand-parents, after all, Joseph, the husband of mary is son to Jacob(Mathhew 1:16) and the son of Heli (Luke 3:23).

and lastly, please explain Gods position on Circumcision, after all, he did say in Genesis 17:10 that "This is my covenant, which you shall keep, between me and you and your offspring after you: Every male among you shall be circumcised."
But then in Galatians 5:2 we get told that the cirumcised will no profit or gain benefits from christ.

And before you say "well he changed his mind", James 1:17 tells us quite clearly that "Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning."
which to me sounds pretty much like there is no changing of mind, no variableness.

I am geniunly interested in those answers, because so far i have *not* managed to find those questions answered in a coherent way that doesn't also make the entire bible more or less irellevant (and yes, i count the answer of "issues in translations" and "those were written by fallible people" as invalid because a: that would apply to *any* text in the bible and b: i have looked at these bits in multiple versions of the bible, and they all atleast agree on the direction and general gist of the text)

I do not know if the study used the case in germany, as germany itself is never mentioned and the participants are only described as "This study was conducted on apparently healthy male and
female workers employed in airport surveillance radar sites
with a frequency range of 14-18 GHz."

5G isn't different, it would just be way more widespread than most current frequencies, and yes, i am aware that wifi uses up to 6 Ghz, as i even mentionend that.

In the end, my point ins't to make a binary statement if its a problem or not, but only to highlight that we don't know if its gonna be a problem, especially in the 6+ GHz and 18+GHz bands, so more science is needed to know if its gonna be safe in wide-spread usage over the long-term.

And agreed, gotta maximize the r in that equation if one wants to be carefull

Alright, lets do a Sciene then. First lets read "Exposure limits: the underestimation of absorbed cell phone radiation, especially in children." PMID 21999884, which in itself is a meta-study analyzing other studies on the toppic.
Firsty, the Interphone Study found no short-term increased risk for brain-cancer in short-term cell phone users, but a more than doubled risk for long-term (over 10 years) users, with many other studies also finding increased risk for long-term users. Altough i would like to mention that while they did show a correlation, causation has yet to be proven.

But "Alterations of visual reaction time and short term memory in military radar personnel.", PMID 23785684 has shown that frequencies of 2-18 GHz cause measurable decrease in reaction times.

And to quote the results of "Adverse health effects of occupational exposure to radiofrequency radiation in airport surveillance radar operators." PMID 24082641:
"Twenty to 39% of the radar workers reported different problems such as needing a good tonic, feeling run down and out of sorts, headache, tightness or pressure in the head, insomnia, getting edgy and bad-tempered. Furthermore, 47% of the radar workers reported feeling under strain. In response to this question that if they have been able to enjoy their normal day-to-day activities, 31% responded less than usual. It was also shown that work experience had significant relationships with reaction time and short-term memory indices i.e., forward digit span, reverse digit span, word recognition and paired words."

You might notice that while the good 'ol 2.4 GHz and the modern 5Ghz of wifi are on the lower bound of that scale.
GSM operated at around 850MHz to 1900Mhz, with 4G going to 600Mhz to up to 2.5 GHz.
5G, while also living in those frequencies, it also is up in 24-52 GHz, with furter ranges that "may" go into the 5925-7150MHz and 64-86 GHz range.

With 5G being a new thing, there have been no long-term studies on the toppic so far.
But there have been studies on its safety: "5G Wireless Communication and Health Effects—A Pragmatic Review Based on Available Studies Regarding 6 to 100 GHz" PMID 31540320.
To quote their results: "In summary, the majority of studies with MMW exposures show biological responses. From this observation, however, no in-depth conclusions can be drawn regarding the biological and health effects of MMW exposures in the 6–100 GHz frequency range. "

TL:DR; 5G has biological effects, we just don't have enough data to say if its safe or not, but current data shows that its effect are very much measureable and more severe than sunlight.

But they are disprovable, and they get adjusted/dropped when disproven, unlike most holy texts which stay mostly unchanged, even in the face of evidence to the contrary

you have not played CK2 until a horse has become the holy roman emperor.

not much more, but in order imgur.com/a/duNCA
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TRAITOR

Season 4
Episode 6

if you haven't go watch it now

Also even if they could get the TARDIS, remember the Doctor dies in Utha at the hand of the Impossible Astronaut. And we all know what happens if someone wants to change that. Goku got nothing on the Holy Roman Emperor Winston Spencer-Churchill.